SEBI Relaxes Intimation Rules for Changes in the Terms of Private Placement Memorandum of AIFs Through Merchant Bankers

Securities Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”), vide its circular dated April 29, 2024, based on the feedback received from the market participants has relaxed the requirement of intimating changes in the terms of the Private Placement Memorandum (“PPM”) of AIFs through merchant bankers and SEBI has identified that certain changes in the terms of the PPM may be filed directly with SEBI rather than through a merchant banker, thereby facilitating ease of doing business and rationalising the cost of compliance for AIFs. Para 2.5.3 of the Master Circular for AIFs mandated the intimation with respect to any change in the terms of PPM to be submitted to SEBI through a merchant banker, along with a due diligence certificate from the merchant banker in the format specified by SEBI.

The said circular lists out in Annexure A thereto, the changes in the terms of the PPM that are to be filed directly with SEBI. Further, as per the circular, Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors (“LVFs”) are exempted from the requirement of intimating any changes in the terms of PPM through a merchant banker. LVFs may directly file any changes in the terms of the PPM with SEBI, along with a duly signed and stamped undertaking by the chief executive officer of the manager of AIFs (or the person holding equivalent role or position depending on the legal structure of the manager) and compliance officer of the manager of AIFs (in the format set out in Annexure B to the circular).

To read the circular click here

For any clarification, please write to:

Mr. Yatin Narang
Partner
[email protected]

Workers who are engaged in the performance of work which is perennial or permanent in nature would not be classified as contractual workers

The Supreme Court, vide its judgement dated March 12, 2024, in the case of Mahanadi Coalfields Limited v. Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union [Civil Appeal No(s). 4092-4093/2024], has held that the workers who are engaged in the performance of work which is perennial or permanent in nature would not be classified as contractual workers.

Facts

Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (“Appellant”), a subsidiary of Coal India Limited, floated a tender for the transportation of crushed coal and selected a successful contractor for performance of the National Coal Wage Agreement-IV (“Agreement”) for the period of 1984-94. The contractor engaged 32 workmen for the execution of the Agreement. The Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union (“Respondent”) sought permanent status for the workmen engaged by the contractor and reliance was placed on clauses 11.5.1 and 11.5.2 of the Agreement, wherein it was agreed that contract labour should not be engaged by the employer with respect to those jobs which are permanent and perennial in nature. The Agreement also provided that such permanent and perennial jobs should be executed through regular employees. Following the representation of the Respondent, a notice was sent to the Appellant by the Assistant Labour Commissioner for conciliation. The conciliation process eventually culminated in a settlement dated April 5, 1997, under Rule 58 (Memorandum of settlement) of the Industrial Disputes (Central) Rules, 1957, wherein regularisation for 19 workers took place as their nature of work was held to be permanent and perennial in nature since they were engaged in bunker for operating chutes. 13 workers remained unregularized as the nature of their work was considered as purely casual which was not prohibited under Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970.

In view of the fact that the settlement is limited to only 19 workmen, the entire dispute was referred by the Central Government to the Industrial Tribunal, Rourkela, Odisha (“Industrial Tribunal”), under Sections 10 (Reference of disputes to Boards, Courts, or Tribunals) and (2A)(1)(d) (Dismissal, etc., of an individual workman to be deemed to be an industrial dispute) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (“Industrial Disputes Act”). The industrial dispute was allowed by the Industrial Tribunal, order dated May 23, 2002 which directed the regularization of the remaining 13 workmen and held that the work of removing spillages in the railway siding, below the bunker and operation of chutes in the bunker are regular and perennial in nature.

Aggrieved by the judgement of the Industrial Tribunal, the Appellant filed a writ petition before the Orissa High Court. Orissa High Court dismissed the writ petition and upheld the decision of the Industrial Tribunal by taking into consideration the nature of work performed by the workers. Additionally, the Orissa High Court also dismissed the review petition filed by the management. Therefore, being aggrieved by the order of the Orissa High Court, the Appellant filed the present appeal before the Supreme Court.

Issue

Whether the workers working in a perennial or permanent nature of work would be treated as contractual workers.

Arguments

Contentions of the Appellant:

It was contended by the Appellant that the award passed by the Industrial Tribunal is bad in law and the settlement was binding on the parties due to Section 18(1) (Persons on whom settlements and awards are binding) read with Section 36 (Representation of parties) of the Industrial Disputes Act and it also continues to be binding on the parties by virtue of Section 19(2) (Period of operation of settlements and awards) of the Industrial Disputes Act, since the said settlement was never terminated.

The Appellant submitted that the nature of works being performed by the workers was verified before reaching to the settlement. It was found that 19 workers were performing perennial and permanent work and the work of the remaining 13 workers was ‘casual’ in nature.

It was contended by the Appellant that the only provision under which regularization could be claimed would be Section 25F (Conditions precedent to retrenchment of workmen) of the Industrial Disputes Act, which would have no application in the present case since the workmen worked under the supervision of a contractor and not the Appellant.

It was also contended by the Appellant that the Industrial Tribunal had wrongly directed the Appellant to disburse back-wages to the 13 workers as it is contrary to the settled principle which states that the grant of back-wages can never be automatic or a natural consequence of regularization. The Appellant relied on the judgement in the case of J.K. Synthetics Limited v. K.P. Agrawal and Another [(2007) 2 SCC 433] to support its contention that the workers who are seeking regularization and back-wages had an onus to prove that they were not gainfully employed.

Contentions of the Respondent:

It was contended by the Respondent that all 32 workers were engaged in works which were similar in nature and the workers were arbitrarily deprived of regularization, wherein certain workers from the bunker and the plant were left out of the settlement without any reason. Additionally, it was also argued that the work which was performed by the workers in the railway siding was perennial and regular in nature and similar to the work performed in the bunker.

The Respondent also relied on the evidence of the personal manager and the project officer in the Appellant company who admitted that the removal of spilled coal from the railway siding, the bunker and the coal handling plant was regular and perennial in nature. Therefore, the 13 workers who were not regularised also actively participated in tasks deemed regular and perennial.

The Respondent submitted that since there was no resolution of the claim of regularization of similarly placed workers, they have the right to pursue the remedy under the Industrial Disputes Act. It is submitted that Rule 58 of the Industrial Disputes (Central) Rules, 1957, under which the settlement occurred, nowhere posed a legal obstruction to the remedy.

The Respondent also submitted that the 13 workmen who were not regularised suffered without any fault of theirs and therefore an order of regularisation must naturally lead to grant of consequential back-wages.

Observations of the Supreme Court

The Supreme Court observed that the regularised employees and the remaining workers stand on the same footing, and the non-regularised workers were wrongly not made part of the settlement. Further, it was observed by the Supreme Court that there existed no grounds for the artificial distinction between the 19 workers who were regularized and the 13 workers who were left out. The Supreme Court noted that out of the 19 workers who were regularized, 16 worked in the bunker, and 3 worked in the coal handling plant. However, 3 workers from the same bunker and 3 workers from the same coal handling plant were not regularised. The Appellant failed to establish any distinction between the two sets of workers. Therefore, the Industrial Tribunal was justified in holding that the nature of the duties performed by the remaining 13 workmen is also perennial and regular in nature.

It was observed by the Supreme Court that even if a settlement was arrived at with respect to some of the workmen, the Industrial Tribunal was tasked to examine the entire reference and give independent findings on the dispute. Hence, the Industrial Tribunal was justified in giving its award on the reference made by the Central Government. This answers the objection raised by the Appellant about the jurisdiction of the Industrial Tribunal.

It was also observed by the Supreme Court that in the present case, the denial of regularisation of the 13 workers was wrongful and the workmen had no fault in it. The Supreme Court upheld the order of the Industrial Tribunal for regularizing the workmen and observed that said workmen are entitled to back-wages with a modification to the order of the Industrial Tribunal and confining the calculation of the back-wages from May 23, 2002, that is, the date of the order of the Industrial Tribunal as the Supreme Court took into consideration the public interest as well the litigation between the parties which has been pending since a long period of time, thereby causing an adverse impact on the Appellant as well as the workmen.

Decision of the Supreme Court

The Supreme Court, while dismissing the appeals, upheld the decision of the Industrial Tribunal and regularised the remaining 13 workers. The Supreme Court also ordered that there would be no order restricting the wages of the said workers. Further, the Supreme Court ordered the calculation of backwages for the workers from May 23, 2002, that is, from the date of the order of the Industrial Tribunal.

VA View:

The Supreme Court has rightly held that the workers who perform any work which is permanent or perennial in nature would not be considered as a contract worker and therefore, ordered the regularization of the said workers.

The decision of the Supreme Court has provided relief to the workers who are arbitrarily considered as contractual labourers in spite of being engaged in work of permanent or perennial nature. The observation of the Supreme Court emphasizes that such workers should not be deprived of the opportunity of job regularization. By way of this judgment, the Supreme Court has protected and uplifted the spirit of the labour legislations which are regarded as welfare legislations, by ensuring that the workers are not discriminated and deprived of their statutory rights.

For any query, please write to Mr. Bomi Daruwala at [email protected]

 

SEBI Notifies The SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2024

Securities Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”), vide its notification dated April 25, 2024, has notified the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2024 (“AIF Amended Regulations”), thereby amending the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 (“AIF Regulations”), with an aim to provide: (a) ease of doing business and flexibility to Category I and II Alternative Investment Funds (“AIFs”) to create encumbrance on their equity holdings in investee companies to facilitate raising of debt by such investee companies; and (b) additional flexibility to AIFs and their investors to deal with unliquidated investments of their schemes.

(a) Framework for Category I and II AIFs for creating encumbrance on equity holdings in investee companies:

Through the AIF Amended Regulations, provisos to Regulations 16(1)(c) and 17(c) of the AIF Regulations have been inserted. These provisos state that Category I and II AIFs may create encumbrances on the equity of their investee companies, which are engaged in the business of development, operation, or management of projects in any of the infrastructure sub-sectors listed in the Harmonised Master List of Infrastructure issued by the Central Government. However, the creation of encumbrances is allowed only for the purpose of borrowing by such investee company and subject to such conditions as may be specified by SEBI from time to time.

In this regard, SEBI, vide its circular dated April 26, 2024 (“AIF Encumbrance on Equity Holdings Circular”), has laid down the following framework for creation of encumbrance on equity holdings in investee companies:

  • Existing schemes of Category I or II AIFs who have not on-boarded any investors prior to April 25, 2024, are permitted to create such encumbrances as specified above, subject to explicit disclosure in this regard and disclosure of associated risks in their Private Placement Memorandum (“PPM”).
  • Encumbrances created before April 25, 2024 may continue if such encumbrance were created after making an explicit disclosure in the PPM of the scheme. In the event, such encumbrances are created without making an explicit disclosure in the PPM, consent from all investors in the AIF scheme is required to be obtained by October 24, 2024 or else the encumbrances must be removed by January 24, 2025. Further, encumbrances created otherwise than as stated in this AIF Encumbrance on Equity Holdings Circular should be removed latest by October 24, 2024.
  • Borrowings against encumbered equity must be utilized only for the purpose of development, operation, or management of the investee company, and must not be utilised otherwise, including to invest in another company, and such terms must be incorporated in the investment agreement entered into between the AIFs and the investee company.
  • The duration of the encumbered equity investments should not exceed the residual tenure of the scheme of the Category I or II AIFs.
  • Any Category I or II AIFs with more than 50% foreign investment or with foreign sponsor/ manager or with persons other than resident Indian citizens as external members in its investment committee which is set up to approve its decisions must comply with Reserve Bank of India’s (“RBI”) Master Direction on ‘Foreign Investments in India’ dated January 4, 2018, as though the AIF is a person resident outside India.
  • In case of default by the borrower investee company, Category I or II AIFs shall ensure that the fund or its investors are not liable beyond the encumbered equity by the AIF of the investee company.
  • AIFs are barred from extending any form of guarantee for investee companies.
  • Category I or II AIFs are prohibited from creating encumbrance on their investments in foreign investee companies.

Managers of AIFs are to adopt and adhere to the implementation standards formulated by the Standard Setting Forum (“SFA”), and the trustee/ sponsor of AIFs, as the case may be, are required to ensure that the ‘Compliance Test Report’ prepared by the manager in terms of the Master Circular for AIFs dated July 31, 2023 (“Master Circular for AIFs”), includes compliance with the provisions of AIF Encumbrance on Equity Holdings Circular.

(b) Enhanced flexibility to AIFs and their investors in managing unliquidated investments:

Regulation 29(9) of the AIF Regulations provides that during the liquidation period of a scheme, AIFs may distribute investments of a scheme which are not sold due to lack of liquidity, in-specie to the investors or enter into the dissolution period, after obtaining approval of at least 75% percent of the investors by value of their investment in the AIF scheme, in the manner and subject to conditions specified by SEBI from time to time. In the absence of consent of unit holders for exercising the options set out above during the liquidation period, such investments of the AIF scheme are to be dealt with in the manner specified by SEBI from time to time.

SEBI, vide its circular dated April 26, 2024 (“AIF Unliquidated Investments Circular”), has now laid down the following conditions in this regard:

  • Dissolution period: The AIF Amended Regulations introduces a dissolution period following the expiry of the liquidation period of the scheme, allowing AIFs to liquidate unliquidated investments. Prior to seeking the requisite investor consent, the AIF/manager must arrange a bid for a minimum of 25% of the value of its unliquidated investments. Details pertaining to the proposed tenure of the dissolution period, details of unliquidated investments, value recognition of the unliquidated investments for reporting to performance benchmarking agencies, etc., and an indicative range of bid value, along with the valuation of the unliquidated investments carried out by 2 independent valuers are required to be disclosed to investors prior to seeking their consent. Further, the AIF/manager must intimate SEBI about obtaining the investor consent and the investors’ decision to enter into dissolution period, prior to the expiry of the liquidation period. If the AIF scheme fails to sell the unliquidated investments during the dissolution period, such investments shall be mandatorily distributed in-specie to the investors, and no further extension or liquidation period shall be available to these schemes after the expiry of dissolution period.
  • Mandatory in-specie distribution: During the liquidation period, if AIF fails to obtain requisite investor consent for entering into dissolution period or in-specie distribution, then the unliquidated investments shall be mandatorily distributed to investors in-specie, without the requirement of obtaining consent of 75% of the investors by value of their investment in the AIF scheme. The value of such investments distributed in-specie is recognized at INR 1 for capturing the track record of the manager and for reporting to performance benchmarking agencies.
  • One-time flexibility for expired liquidation period: Schemes of AIF whose liquidation period has expired or shall expire on or before July 24, 2024 (i.e., within 3 months of notification of the AIF Amended Regulations), shall be granted a fresh liquidation period till April 24, 2025. AIF schemes with pending investor complaints with respect to non-receipt of funds/securities, must resolve them before availing the fresh liquidation period. However, the fresh liquidation period shall be available only from the date of resolution of the complaint till April 24, 2025.
  • Responsibility for compliance: AIF managers, trustees, and key management personnel are responsible for compliance with the procedure prescribed under AIF Unliquidated Investments Circular. AIF managers must submit compliance reports on the SEBI Intermediary Portal (siportal.sebi.gov.in) in the format as specified therein. Further, the AIF trustee/ sponsor, as the case may be, shall ensure that the ‘Compliance Test Report’ prepared by the manager in terms chapter 15 of the Master Circular for AIFs, includes compliance with the provisions of AIF Unliquidated Investments Circular.
  • Discontinuation of the option of launching liquidation scheme: Any liquidation scheme launched by an AIF prior to April 25, 2024 (e., the date of notification of AIF Amended Regulations) shall continue to be governed by the circular of SEBI dated June 21, 2023 on ‘Modalities for launching Liquidation Scheme and for distributing the investments of AIFs in-specie’, till such schemes are wound up.

To read the notification click here, to read the AIF Encumbrance on Equity Holdings Circular click here & to read the AIF Unliquidated Investments Circular click here

For any clarification, please write to:

Mr. Yatin Narang
Partner
[email protected]

Bombay High Court: Orders issued by banks and financial institutions while declaring a wilful defaulter must be reasoned orders

The Bombay High Court (“Bombay High Court”), vide its judgement dated March 4, 2024, in the case of Milind Patel v. Union Bank of India and Others [2024 SCC OnLine Bom 745], has held that banks and financial institutions must provide a reasoned order before declaring the occurrence of a wilful default by an entity or individual.

Facts

Mr. Milind Patel (“Petitioner”) was a joint managing director in the whole-time employment of IL&FS Financial Services Limited (“IFIN”). IFIN and the Petitioner were served with a common show cause notice dated July 5, 2022 (“SCN”) by the Union Bank of India (“Union Bank”), which had sanctioned credit limits to IFIN aggregating to INR 175 Crores. The SCN stated that Union Bank had formed a prima facie view that IFIN and the Petitioner deserved to be declared as wilful defaulters in connection with the facilities sanctioned to IFIN, alleging diversion and siphoning of funds by IFIN, amongst other reasons. There were certain references to specific amounts involved and number of instances of allegedly deviant conduct by IFIN. However, the SCN did not set out details of the Petitioner’s involvement in the reasons, except for identification of the Petitioner as a noticee in his capacity as a “whole time director”. No other whole time director or promoter was a noticee in the SCN.

The Reserve Bank of India (“RBI”), vide its master circular on wilful defaulters dated July 1, 2015 (“Master Circular”), provides that to declare a person as a wilful defaulter, the evidence of wilful default on the part of the borrower and its whole time director should be examined by an identification committee. If the identification committee concludes that wilful default has occurred, a show cause notice must be issued to the borrower and its whole-time director(s) and call for an explanation. After considering the submissions in reply, and providing an opportunity of being heard (should the identification committee feel such an opportunity is necessary), a reasoned order recording the wilful default must be issued. The order passed by the identification committee will be confirmed by the review committee. The Master Circular also states that it is ‘imperative’ for banks and financial institutions to put in place a transparent mechanism for the entire process so that the penal provisions are not misused and the scope of such discretionary powers are kept to the bare minimum.

In the present case, Union Bank did not enclose any of the material or records in the SCN. Therefore, the Petitioner sought a copy of the material available with Union Bank, vide a letter dated July 12, 2022. The Petitioner also made submissions on the scope of his responsibilities in IFIN to state that since March 2014, his role fundamentally changed from overseeing lending business to overseeing equity investments and advisory operations. The Petitioner did not get a response to this request, however, Union Bank issued a hearing notice to the Petitioner, giving him an opportunity of being heard. The Petitioner reiterated his request for the underlying documents, information and other material, in order to effectively deal with the allegations contained in the SCN, however, it was not responded by Union Bank. On August 5, 2022, the Petitioner participated in a personal hearing, and on August 15, 2022, filed his written submissions pursuant to the personal hearing.

On February 28, 2023, Union Bank issued the final order passed by the review committee (“Final Order”) to confirm that the Petitioner has been identified as a wilful defaulter. The Final Order asserted that the identification committee had passed an order at its meeting held on August 5, 2022 and that such order had been conveyed to the Petitioner on September 8, 2022. Therefore, the identification committee did not consider the detailed written submissions made by the Petitioner on August 15, 2022.

Further, vide a letter dated November 2, 2023, the Petitioner protested against non-receipt of the identification committee’s draft order and asserted that the Final Order was in violation of the inherent safeguards contained in the Master Circular, and the basic principles of natural justice had been violated. The Petitioner, therefore, sought rescission of the Final Order, and sought an opportunity of personal hearing before the review committee, after being served with draft order of the identification committee. There was no response from Union Bank to these requests from the Petitioner.

Therefore, aggrieved by the order of the identification committee and the Final Order, the Petitioner filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court, seeking intervention, inter alia, by way of a declaration that all documents referred to and relied upon in the SCN ought to be provided and seeking the quashing of the Final Order.

Issue

Whether the order passed by the identification committee and the Final Order were in accordance with the Master Circular and sustainable under law.

Arguments

Contentions of the Petitioner:

The Petitioner argued that he was not served with a copy of the draft order prepared by the identification committee and despite several requests, was not provided with underlying documents, information and other material based on which the orders were passed by the identification committee and the review committee.

Contentions of Union Bank:

Union Bank argued that it was not obligated to provide any material to prove its allegations and that the onus was on the Petitioner to prove his innocence.

Observations of the Bombay High Court

Bombay High Court, without going into the merits of whether IFIN, and thereby the Petitioner, are guilty of committing wilful defaults, observed that RBI has mandated that the evidence of wilful default must be examined by the bank. The Bombay High Court noted that in proceedings that can inflict serious civil consequences on any citizen, the noticee should be able to appreciate the case made out against him so that he may deal with the allegations to the best of his ability. The only means of doing so is to provide detailed and proper notice of the reasons for having formed a prima facie view when calling upon the noticee to show cause why such prima facie view must not translate into a final view.

Bombay High Court cited the case of T. Takano v. Securities and Exchange Board of India and Another [(2022) 8 SCC 162] (“Takano judgement”) where the Supreme Court has summarized the relevance of disclosure of information and records underlying the allegations. The Supreme Court observed that disclosure of information serves 3 purposes; first is reliability, as it aids the courts in determining the truth of the contentions of the parties. Second is fair trial, as it allows the parties to effectively participate in the proceedings. Third is transparency and accountability, since the principles of fairness and transparency of adjudicatory proceedings are the cornerstones of the principle of open justice. The Supreme Court has observed that as a default rule, all relevant material must be disclosed.

Bombay High Court observed that the Takano judgement throws light on how the Master Circular must be construed. The avoidance of information asymmetry and the means of ensuring transparency as outlined in Takano judgement would necessarily mean that principles of natural justice, including the need to provide the underlying material, are inherent and implicit in the process stipulated under the Master Circular. Bombay High Court noted that the objective of the proceedings initiated by issuance of a show cause notice is to arrive at the truth as to whether or not an individual in question is to be subjected to penal consequences. Bombay High Court further noted that fair and transparent symmetrical access to information would mean providing access to not only incriminating material but also exculpatory material, since all such information would be relevant for arriving at the truth.

Bombay High Court further observed that while IFIN may have been declared a wilful defaulter, there is no analysis of evidence at the relevant time demonstrating the role of the Petitioner for holding him to be individually responsible. In these circumstances, it was evident that the Final Order, which was a near-verbatim reproduction of the SCN, was against the constitutional protections available under the rule of law in India and in violation of the ‘imperative’ requirements of transparency stipulated by in the Master Circular.

Decision of the Bombay High Court

Bombay High Court ordered Union Bank to consider recalling the order of the identification committee and the Final Order, with liberty to conduct the proceedings afresh from the stage of the SCN, after providing proper access to the relevant material to the Petitioner. The Petitioner will then be at liberty to submit a fresh reply to the SCN, after which a reasoned draft order may be issued by the identification committee. Bombay High Court also ordered Union Bank to serve the draft order of the identification committee on the Petitioner. Thereafter, a reasoned final order may be passed by the review committee, if it is found that there has been a wilful default attributable to the Petitioner. Bombay High Court ruled that the banks and financial institutions that seek to invoke the Master Circular, must identify the members of the identification committee and the members of the review committee, and share the reasoned orders passed by such committees.

Further, Bombay High Court also directed the agencies who have published the name of the Petitioner identifying him as a wilful defaulter to forthwith remove such identification from publicly accessible information resources.

VA View:

The Master Circular provides that it is ‘imperative’ for banks and financial institutions to put in place a transparent mechanism while declaring occurrence of wilful default to ensure that the penal provisions are not misused and the scope of such discretionary powers are kept to the bare minimum.

In light of the same, Bombay High Court has rightly ruled that banks should be transparent with alleged defaulters, and provide all the relevant facts that would form the basis of determination of a wilful default. The absence of transparency would render the exercise of discretion to be arbitrary. Therefore, in accordance with the rule of law, banks must pass a reasoned order in such cases.

For any query, please write to Mr. Bomi Daruwala at [email protected]

Delhi High Court: Designation of seat of arbitration is similar to an exclusive jurisdiction clause

The Delhi High Court (“Delhi High Court”), in its judgement dated February 26, 2024, in the matter of My Preferred Transformation and Hospitality Private Limited v. Panchdeep Construction Limited [ARB.P. 847/2023], has held that the designation of seat of arbitration is akin to an exclusive jurisdiction clause. The Delhi High Court has emphasized that the clause in an agreement designating the seat of arbitration should take precedence and assume pre-eminence over the exclusive jurisdiction clause.

Facts

My Preferred Transformation and Hospitality Private Limited (“Petitioner”) entered into a management services agreement, dated August 28, 2019, with Panchdeep Construction Limited (“Respondent”) towards operating the Respondent’s hotel in Howrah, West Bengal (“Management Services Agreement”). The Management Services Agreement contained an arbitration clause which referred any disputes between the parties to arbitration in accordance with the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (“Arbitration Act”). The clause designated New Delhi as the seat of arbitration whereas the jurisdiction clause conferred exclusive jurisdiction to the courts in Kolkata in all matters arising out of the Management Services Agreement.

The relevant arbitration and jurisdiction clauses of the Management Services Agreement are reproduced below:

“10.1 Arbitration: Any dispute arising out of this Agreement and the obligation thereunder (“Dispute”) shall be finally settled by arbitration in accordance with the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 or any statutory modification or re-enactment thereof for the time being in force. The Parties agree that the Dispute shall be adjudicated by a mutually appointed single arbitrator. The arbitration proceedings shall be conducted in English language and seat of arbitration shall be New Delhi.

10.2 Jurisdiction: subject to foregoing courts at Kolkata shall have exclusive jurisdiction in all matters arising out of this Agreement.”

In response to the disputes that arose between the Petitioner and the Respondent, the Petitioner invoked arbitration by serving a legal notice, dated July 18, 2022, on the Respondent. The parties were unable to achieve consensus on the appointment of an arbitrator, therefore, Petitioner approached the Delhi High Court by filing an application under Section 11 (Appointment of arbitrators) of the Arbitration Act for the appointment of an arbitrator (“Section 11 Petition”).

Issue

Whether the designation of New Delhi as the seat of arbitration conferred jurisdiction on the Delhi High Court to entertain the Section 11 Petition.

Arguments

Contentions of the Petitioner:

The Petitioner submitted that clause 10.1 of the Management Services Agreement clearly designated New Delhi as the seat of arbitration. The Petitioner also contended that the exclusive jurisdiction clause contained in clause 10.2 of the Management Services Agreement began with the words “subject to foregoing”.

The Petitioner placed reliance on the decision of the division bench of the Bombay High Court (“Bombay High Court”) in the case of Aniket SA Investments LLC v. Janapriya Engineers Syndicate Private Limited [2021(4) Mh.L.J.] (“Aniket SA Case”), wherein the Bombay High Court vested jurisdiction over the seat court as opposed to the court in which the parties had vested exclusive jurisdiction.

Contentions of the Respondent:

The Respondent contended that the jurisdiction to entertain the Section 11 Petition vests in the Calcutta High Court and not the Delhi High Court. The Respondent submitted that while the court having jurisdiction over the seat of arbitration would normally have exclusive jurisdiction over all matters arising from the arbitration proceedings, the jurisdiction for appointment of an arbitrator under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act is not be covered by this principle.

The Respondent relied on the judgements of the Hon’ble Supreme Court (“SC”) in the cases of Indus Mobile Distribution Private Limited v. Datawind Innovations Private Limited [(2017) 7 SCC 678] (“Indus Mobile Case”) and BGS SGS Soma JV v. NHPC Limited [(2020) 4 SCC 234] (“BGS Soma Case”), whereunder the SC held that the principle that designation of seat of arbitration is akin to an exclusive jurisdiction clause applied only to petitions for interlocutory relief under Section 9 (Interim measures, etc., by Court) of the Arbitration Act and for challenging arbitral awards under Section 34 (Application for setting aside arbitral awards) of the Arbitration Act.

The Respondent submitted that the proceedings under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act stands on a different footing as they do not deal with the ‘subject matter of arbitration’ but rather merely deal with the appointment of the person tasked with resolving disputes.

The Respondent also relied upon the judgement of the Calcutta High Court in the case of Commercial Division Bowlopedia Restaurants India Limited v. Devyani International Limited [(2021) 1 Cal LT 138] (“Commercial Division Case”) to suggest that, in any event, a forum selection clause would prevail over a seat selection clause in the context of domestic arbitration.

Observations of the Delhi High Court

The Delhi High Court observed that a plain reading of clauses 10.1 and 10.2 of the Management Services Agreement made it clear that New Delhi had been designated as the seat of arbitration. Further, the exclusive jurisdiction clause vesting exclusive jurisdiction in the courts at Kolkata commenced with the words “subject to foregoing”. Therefore, there was no real conflict between the arbitration seat clause and the exclusive jurisdiction clause. The text of the Management Services Agreement itself made the exclusive jurisdiction clause subservient to the arbitration seat clause.

In Delhi High Court’s view, the settled position of law with regard to exclusive jurisdiction of the seat court in matters arising out of an arbitration agreement applies equally to the appointment of an arbitrator under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act and proceedings under Sections 9 or 34 of the Arbitration Act.

The Delhi High Court observed that in the Indus Mobile Case, the SC had held that unlike in a civil proceeding under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the parties to an arbitration agreement have liberty to choose a neutral venue to be designated as the seat of arbitration. The SC also opined that in arbitration law, the moment the seat is determined, it would vest the seat courts with exclusive jurisdiction for purposes of regulating arbitral proceedings arising out of an agreement between the parties.

The Delhi High Court further observed that the contention of the Respondent, that the legal principle of exclusive jurisdiction being granted to the seat court was confined only to proceedings under Sections 9 and 34 of the Arbitration Act, was a wrong interpretation of the BGS Soma Case. Besides, the SC in the BGS Soma Case opined that “pride of place is given to the juridical seat of the arbitral proceedings.” The Delhi High Court also observed that the facts of the Commercial Division Case, whereunder the Calcutta High Court had opined that in the context of domestic arbitration, a forum selection clause would prevail over a seat selection clause, did not apply to the facts of the instant case.

In Delhi High Court’s view, to exempt proceedings under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act from the exclusive jurisdiction of the seat court, would be inconsistent with the concept of party autonomy and the availability of a neutral venue as the seat of arbitration. The Delhi High Court observed that to the extent that our jurisprudence recognizes that the parties can repose their faith in a seat, which would otherwise not have jurisdiction over the subject matter of the proceedings, it is imperative that the appointment of the arbitral tribunal must also be made by such a neutral court. Any other interpretation would denude the significance of the neutral venue, allowing parties to approach any court falling under the definition of “court”, as defined in Section 2(1)(e) (Definitions) of the Arbitration Act, for the fundamental task of appointing the arbitrator.

The Delhi High Court further observed that in the Aniket SA Case, the exclusive jurisdiction clause was expressly “subject to” provisions of the arbitration clause, which designated Mumbai as the seat of arbitration and accordingly, the division bench of the Bombay High Court held that Mumbai had jurisdiction over the subject matter of the proceedings.

Decision of the Delhi High Court

In light of the above-mentioned observations, the Delhi High Court held that it had jurisdiction to entertain Section 11 Petition and referred the dispute between the Petitioner and the Respondent to arbitration to be held under the aegis of the Delhi International Arbitration Centre.

VA View:

In this judgement, the Delhi High Court has rightly held that the exclusive jurisdiction of the seat court in matters arising from the arbitration agreement applies both to the appointment of an arbitrator under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act and to proceedings under Sections 9 and 34 of the Arbitration Act.

The Delhi High Court has rightly observed that as soon as the seat of arbitration has been designated, it is akin to an exclusive jurisdiction clause. This judgement has re-emphasized the well settled principle of law that an arbitration clause, pursuant to which a place has been determined as the ‘seat’, would vest the courts of such place with exclusive jurisdiction for the purpose of regulating the arbitral proceedings.

For any query, please write to Mr. Bomi Daruwala at [email protected]

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhinyam, 2023 (BSA) Vs. Indian Evidence Act of 1872 (IEA)

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhinyam, 2023 (BSA) replaces the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 (IEA) and it was approved by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on December 20 and December 21, 2023, respectively, before receiving presidential assent on December 25, 2023.

The key objectives of BSA are to modernize, simplify, and streamline how evidence is presented and interpreted inside the courts. Such modern provisions will make judicial system more technology-enabled, fair, and efficient. Compared to the Indian Evidence Act, BSA is simplified, clearer, and visibly addresses challenges like cybercrime and vulnerable groups.The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam is simplified, streamlined, and modernized version of evidence rules, which came into existence by replacing the centuries old Indian Evidence Act of 1872. Though the BSA retains many of the provisions of IEA, but in the revised and modernized form. Besides, BSA also inserted certain new points for the ease of judicial trial and make the system more transparent.

Modification in 23 Sections, 5 repealed sections, and 1 newly added section gave birth to the NEWLY BSA,2023.

For understanding, the following terms/words may be considered to me:

Bharatiya = India/Indian

Sakshya    = Evidence

Adhinyam = Act

Sanhita     =  Code

The following provisions from IEA have been deleted from BSA:

  • Section 3 (j): India
  • Section 82: Presumption as to document admissible in England without proof of seal or signature
  • Section 88: Presumption as to telegraphic messages
  • Section 113: Proof of cession of territory
  • Section 166: Power of jury or assessors to put questions

The Changes made and inserted in the new act are:

  1. Territorial Application of the BSA: Section 1 of the Indian Evidence Act (IEA) specified the application of the act to the entire territory of India. However, Section 1 of the Bharatiya Suraksha Adhiniyam (BSA) lacks this provision. This omission is likely intended to facilitate the admissibility of digital evidence originating from locations outside India.
  2. Document- Section 2(d), BSA (Sec 3(e)IEA)- “ “document” means any matter expressed or described or otherwise recorded upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks or any other means or by more than one of those means, intended to be used, or which may be used, for the purpose of recording that matter and includes electronic and digital records.”

The new definition included-

Inclusion of Electronic and Digital Records: The newer definition explicitly includes electronic and digital records within the scope of what constitutes a document. This means that any information expressed, described, or recorded electronically, such as through computers, smartphones, or other digital devices, falls under the definition of a document.

Expansion of Means of Recording: The newer definition expands on how information can be recorded beyond just letters, figures, or marks. It encompasses any means of recording, which could include audio recordings, video recordings, or any other method of capturing information.

Clarification of Intended Use: Both definitions mention the intended use of the document for recording information. However, the newer definition clarifies that the intended use may include electronic and digital formats, ensuring that these formats are not excluded from the definition due to their non-physical nature.

Inclusion of “Otherwise Recorded”: The newer definition includes the phrase “otherwise recorded,” which further emphasizes the broad scope of what constitutes a document. This phrase acknowledges that there are various ways information can be recorded beyond traditional methods and ensures that such unconventional methods are also covered under the definition.

  1. Evidence- Section 2(e), BSA (Sec 3(f)IEA)– “evidence” means and includes— (i) all statements including statements given electronically which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses in relation to matters of fact under inquiry and such statements are called oral evidence; (ii) all documents including electronic or digital records produced for the inspection of the Court and such documents are called documentary evidence;”

The newer definition of “evidence” expands the scope to include statements given electronically as oral evidence, alongside traditional oral testimony. It also explicitly incorporates electronic and digital records within the category of documentary evidence, reflecting the contemporary reality of information storage and communication. This update enhances clarity and adaptability to technological advances, ensuring that legal frameworks effectively address modern forms of evidence. In contrast, the older definition primarily focuses on oral testimony and documents without specific mention of electronic records, potentially limiting its applicability in today’s digital age.

  1. Section 4, BSA(Sec 6, IEA)the inclusion of the phrase “or a relevant fact”. This addition broadens the scope of the connected facts that are considered relevant. In the earlier section, only facts connected to a fact in the issue are mentioned, whereas the newer section includes facts connected to both a fact in the issue and any relevant fact. This adjustment allows for a more comprehensive consideration of connected facts in legal proceedings, ensuring that all relevant information is taken into account, regardless of whether it directly pertains to the specific issue being addressed.
  2. Section 6, Bsa(Sec8, IEA): The difference is the omission of “previous or subsequent conduct” in the new version. Additionally, the phrase “Admiration of Poison” in the old section is absent in the new one. Both versions emphasize the relevancy of motive, preparation, and conduct in legal proceedings, but the new section is structured with numbered subsections for clarity, while the old one is not.
  3. Section 22, BSA (Sec24,28-89, IEA): The new Section 22 of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) consolidates and refines the provisions related to confessions in criminal proceedings from the old Sections 24, 28, and 29 of the Indian Evidence Act. Sections 24, 28, and 29 of IEA were separate provisions dealing with different aspects of confessions whereas Section 22 (BSA) combines these provisions into a single section, making the law more streamlined.
  • The Inclusion of “Coercion“: Where Old Sections: Only “inducement, threat, or promise” were mentioned as factors affecting the relevance of a confession and New Section 22 (BSA): It explicitly includes “coercion” as a factor, broadening the scope and providing more comprehensive coverage.
  • Clarification on Timing: where Section 28, IEA: Mentioned the relevance of a confession made after the removal of the impression caused by inducement, threat, or promise and new Section 22, BSA: It provides a clearer timeline, specifying that a confession becomes relevant once the impression of inducement, threat, or promise has been fully removed.
  • Expanded Scenarios for Relevance: Section 29: It listed scenarios where a confession remains relevant despite being made under certain conditions. Section 22 (BSA): It expands on these scenarios, including confessions made under a promise of secrecy, after deception, when drunk, or in response to questions not required to be answered. It also mentions that the lack of warning about the admissibility of the confession doesn’t make it irrelevant.

Section 22, BSA offers a more comprehensive, structured, and inclusive approach to the admissibility of confessions in criminal proceedings compared to the older, fragmented provisions in the Indian Evidence Act.

  1. Section 24, BSA (Sec30. IEA): The wording in the BSA,2023 section appears to be slightly more streamlined and clearer compared to the Indian Evidence Act. However, the core content and meaning remain essentially the same in both sections.

Only insertion of “Explanation II—A trial of more persons than one held in the absence of the accused who has absconded or who fails to comply with a proclamation issued under section 82 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 shall be deemed to be a joint trial for the purpose of this section.”

  1. The new Section 32 of the BSA,2023 restructures and refines the provisions found in Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. BSA,2023 categorizes the cases into numbered subsections (1 to 8), offering a clearer and more organized framework. Notably, BSA,2023 adds specificity to some categories, like defining the types of business-related documents in subsection (2) and detailing certain relationships in subsections (5) and (6). However, BSA,2023 omits the provision related to documents specified in clause (a) of section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act. Despite these changes, the core intent and content of the provisions remain largely consistent between the two versions.
  2. Section 31, BSA(Sec37, IEA): The new section focuses on Indian Central and State Acts and acknowledges digital formats, reflecting India’s modern legal sovereignty and adapting to technological advancements. In contrast, the old section includes UK Acts and lacks digital acknowledgment, indicating its colonial-era origins. The new section removes colonial references, aligning with India’s independent status. Overall, the changes show a move towards a localized, digitally inclusive, and post-colonial legal framework.
  3. Section 32 BSA(Sec 38) Inclusion of Digital and Electronic Formats:

Section 32: Explicitly states that statements about foreign law can be contained in books published in both physical and electronic or digital forms. This indicates a modern approach, recognizing the evolving nature of legal publications and the increasing reliance on digital resources whereas, Section 38: Although it mentions law contained in books, it does not explicitly recognize electronic or digital forms. This implies that the section predates the common use of digital media, focusing primarily on physically printed materials. Both sections specify that the books must be printed or published under the authority of the government of the country whose law is being discussed, ensuring the authenticity of the source.

BSA section ensures that the law stays relevant with technological advancements and the increasing accessibility of legal documents in digital formats.

  1. Section 35(Sec 41, IEA): The sections deal with the relevance and the conclusive proof provided by final judgments, orders, or decrees from competent courts exercising probate, matrimonial, admiralty, or insolvency jurisdiction and the new change is largely confined to document formatting and slight variances in phraseology.
  2. Section 39,BSA (Sec45, IEA): Both sections address the relevance of expert opinions in court cases regarding specific types of specialized knowledge, including foreign laws, sciences, arts, and the identification of handwriting or fingerprints.

BSA included:

  • Digital and Electronic Evidence: It mentions the role of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence under the Information Technology Act, of 2000.
  • Legal Structure and Detail: Provides a more detailed structure, including a subsection specifically dedicated to electronic evidence, which highlights the legal framework’s adaptation to contemporary technological challenges.
  • Inclusion of digital forensics

The primary distinction between BSA sec 39 and IEA sec 45 lies in the explicit recognition and incorporation of digital and electronic evidence in the BSA, reflecting a modernization in legal proceedings that accommodates advances in technology. Both sections underline the importance of expert testimony in judicial processes but the BSA demonstrates a broader scope by integrating contemporary issues like digital evidence.

  1. Section 52,BSA(Sec57, IEA): The sections ensure courts operate with efficiency by recognizing commonly accepted facts without proof, but they differ in their historical context and the specificity with which they approach modern legal frameworks. Section 52 appears more tailored to current legal contexts, while Section 57 provides a broader historical scope that includes colonial influences and the evolution of legal recognitions over time. This reflects the dynamic nature of legal texts as they adapt to changing governance and societal structures.
  2. Section 55, BSA(Sec 60, IEA): Both sections describe the requisites for oral evidence in judicial proceedings, emphasizing the importance of direct testimony from witnesses regarding their personal experiences of sensory perceptions or opinions. The modification is on subtle legal distinctions or contextual applications rather than on the fundamental legal requirements detailed in these sections.
  3. Section57,BSA( Section 62. IEA):
  • Inclusion of Digital and Electronic Records: includes detailed explanations about how electronic or digital records are treated as primary evidence. It covers scenarios like electronic files stored in multiple locations or formats and video recordings stored and transmitted simultaneously, reflecting modern digital realities.
  • Depth of Explanations and Examples: offers more extensive explanations and includes additional scenarios relevant to modern technology, like electronic records and video recordings.
  1. Section 58,BSA(Section 63, IEA): Both sections define and elaborate on the concept of secondary evidence in the context of legal proceedings. Secondary evidence is essentially any evidence that is not the original document or artifact but can still provide credible information about the original. In the New act includes additional categories such as oral admissions, written admissions, and evidence from persons skilled in examining complex documents (like financial records), which are not explicitly mentioned in sec63, IEA.

This expansion reflects a broader approach to what can be considered secondary evidence under the BSA, potentially accommodating more diverse types of evidence in legal processes. It provides a more detailed enumeration of what qualifies as secondary evidence, including conditions under which certain types of evidence are admissible.

  1. Section 59, BSA (sec 64, IEA): Section 59 states that documents shall be proved by primary evidence except in the cases hereinafter mentioned. It also mandates the use of primary evidence for proving documents but phrases it slightly differently by emphasizing the method of proof (“Proof of documents by primary evidence”).

The section seems to be more directive (“shall be proved”), indicating a mandatory action.

  1. Section 60,BSA (Sec 60,IEA): BSA sec 60 refers to sec 64 for the notice, while IEA sec 65 refers to sec 66.

The mention of “India” in IEA section 65 suggests it is tailored specifically to the Indian legal context, whereas BSA section 60 does not specify a geographical context, possibly making it more generic or applicable in a different jurisdiction.

  1. Section 63, BSA( Sec 65B, IEA) : Section 63 provides an elaborate description of scenarios, including the case where multiple computers or devices over a period or network might be involved. It details how these should be treated as a single source for evidence if they were used interchangeably or in a sequence that is consistent with regular business practices. It goes into greater detail regarding the treatment of data processed through various modalities, whether directly, through intermediaries or across different systems or networks.
  2. Sec 73, BSA(Sec 73A, IEA):
  • Section 73 specifically addresses the verification of digital signatures. This involves the production of a Digital Signature Certificate and the application of the public key listed therein to verify the authenticity of the digital signature whereas, 73A deals with traditional signatures, writings, or seals. It outlines a method for comparing these items with others that have been admitted or proved to verify their authenticity.
  • Section 73 involves a technical process that requires specific digital tools and certificates, reflecting its adaptation to digital communication and authentication technologies and section 73A uses a more traditional approach by comparing the questioned signature, writing, or seal directly with known samples that have been accepted by the court. This section also allows for real-time demonstration by directing a person to create new writing or signatures in court for comparison purposes.
  • Sec 73 is tailored towards the realm of digital transactions and electronic documents, which is increasingly relevant in modern legal contexts due to the rise of digital communications and sec 73A applies to physical documents and is versatile in its application, including to impressions with necessary modifications, thus covering a broader range of evidence types than BSA 73.
  • Sec 73 potentially involves interactions with digital authorities such as Controllers or Certifying Authorities, highlighting the collaborative nature between the judiciary and digital certification bodies and sec 73A, while more straightforward, invokes the court’s authority to create ad hoc evidence by directing the creation of writings or signatures in the courtroom, making it highly practical and interactive.

These differences underline the distinct approaches required by courts when dealing with digital versus traditional forms of evidence, reflecting the adaptations needed to accommodate technological advancements in legal proceedings.

  1. Sec74, BSA( Sec 74-75, IEA):

Sec 74, BSA categorizes documents into public and private categories.

The approach taken by BSA to consolidate the classification may streamline legal processes by providing all relevant information in one place, whereas IEA’s division across two sections could help in emphasizing the legal distinctions and implications of each category. This classification impacts everything from evidence admissibility to public access and document handling procedures in legal settings.

  1. Colonial and antiquated terminology, including references to entities such as the ‘Parliament of the United Kingdom’, ‘Provincial Act’, ‘London Gazette’, ‘Commonwealth’, ‘Privy Council’, ‘Queen’s Printer’, and ‘Her Majesty’, as well as colonial proclamations and orders (as outlined in Section 77 of the BSA, which corresponds to Section 78 of the IEA, and Section 79 of the BSA, corresponding to Section 80 of the IEA), have been eliminated.
  2. Section 88, BSA( Sec86, IEA):
  • Geographic Scope: sec 88, BSA applies to judicial records of any country beyond India. It does not specify any particular jurisdiction or geographic limitation whereas sec 86, IEA applies to judicial records of any country not forming part of India or Her Majesty’s Dominions. This includes a broader range of countries but excludes territories under Indian or British sovereignty.
  • Definition of Representative: BSA sec 88 specifies that an officer designated as a Political Agent for a territory or place outside India is deemed to be a representative of the Central Government of that country. This provision facilitates the identification of a representative for certification purposes and sec 86, IEA also recognizes Political Agents for territories or places not forming part of India or Her Majesty’s Dominions as representatives of the Central Government. However, it does not define another legislative act, as in sec 88, BSA.
  • Cross-references and Explanations: BSA sec 88 includes an explanation for the term “proper custody” within the section itself and IEA sec 86 refers to other sections of the General Clauses Act, of 1897, for definitions, and does not include an explicit explanation within the section itself.
  1. Section 112, BSA( Sec 116, IEA):
  • BSA section 112 deals with the burden of proof regarding the existence or cessation of certain relationships, such as partners, landlord and tenant, or principal and agent. It places the burden of proof on the person who denies the existence of these relationships after they are acting as such and IEA section 116 focuses specifically on estoppel within landlord-tenant relationships and the license of a person in possession of immovable property. It prohibits tenants or those claiming through them from denying the landlord’s title during the tenancy. Similarly, it prevents individuals who enter property with the permission of the person in possession from denying that person’s title to possession at the time of granting the license.
  • Nature of Estoppel: BSA sec 112 establishes a general principle of burden of proof regarding the existence or cessation of certain relationships. It doesn’t explicitly use the term “estoppel,” but it implies that once a relationship is established by evidence of acting as such, the burden shifts to the party denying it and IEA sec 116 explicitly refers to estoppel and outlines specific situations where tenants or licensees are estopped from denying the landlord’s or possessor’s title, respectively, during the continuance of the tenancy or license.
  • Applicability: BSA section 112 applies to a broader range of relationships beyond just landlord-tenant scenarios, including partnerships and agency relationships and IEA section 116 is narrowly focused on the landlord-tenant relationship and the licensee’s relationship with the person in possession of immovable property.
  • Legal Framework: BSA sec 112 is part of the Indian Evidence Act, which is a comprehensive statute governing the admissibility and relevancy of evidence in Indian courts and IEA sec 116 is also part of the Indian Evidence Act and addresses specific aspects of landlord-tenant relationships within its framework.
  • Terminology considered insensitive or outdated, like ‘lunatic’, has been updated to more respectful terms such as ‘person of unsound mind’ (per Section 124 of the BSA, corresponding to Section 118 of the IEA).

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Article By

Vijay Pal Dalmia, Advocate

Supreme Court of India & Delhi High Court

Email id: [email protected]

Mobile No.: +91 9810081079

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And

Vaishnavi Bhargava

Amity Law School, NOIDA, LL.B. 3rd year